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UGC NET 2018 Answer Key, Cutoff Discussion

UGC NET 2018 Exam discussion for Answer Key and Cutoff – UGC NET 2018 exam was conducted on 08th of July at various exam centers in India. Exam were conducted with modified syllabus and shorter time period. The official Answer key for the UGC exam for each of the subjects will be published on the official site of CBSE within a week time.

Answer Key -Paper – I SET – D

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (f)

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

Answer: 1

3. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

Set – I (Method of teaching)

(a) Lecturing

(b) Discussion in groups

(c) Brainstorming

(d) Programmed Instructional procedure

Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)

(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided

(ii) Production of large number of ideas

(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language

(iv) Use of teaching-aids

(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Answer: 3

4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.

(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (e)

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: 4

5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

6. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set – I (Research types)

(a) Fundamental research

(b) Applied research

(c) Action research

(d) Evaluative research

Set – II (Characteristics)

(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions

(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations

(v) Enriching technological resources

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) ii (iv) (iii) (i) (2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (3) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv) 4 (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Answer: 1

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

Answer: 4

8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.

Answer: 3

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

Answer: 4

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

(1) Preparing research summary

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference

(4) Participation in a workshop

Answer: 4

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15:

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimensions, time, and offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?

(a) Aspirations of people

(b) Modern day dynamism

(c) Economy in the global context

(d) Strategic interests

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: 3

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests

12. More productive employment demands:

(1) Pervasive use of technology

(2) Limiting competitive market place

(3) Geo-political considerations

(4) Large industries

Answer: 1

13. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(c) Low value addition

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: 2

14. The advantage if technological inputs would result in:

(1) Unbridled technological growth

(2) Importing plant machinery

(3) Sideling environmental issues

(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity

Answer: 4

15. Envisioning a developed India requires:

(1) Aspiration to become a major economics player

(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad

(3) Focus on short-term projects

(4) Development of core technological strengths

Answer: 4

16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

(1) Selective expectation of performance

(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups

(3) Selective attention

(4) Selective morality

Answer: 1

17. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 4

18. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 4

19. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.

Select the correct code for your answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Codes:

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3

21. The next term in the series

-1, 5, 15, 29,

________, … is

(1) 36

(2) 47

(3) 59

(4) 63

Answer: 3

22. The next term in the series:

ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL,

________, … is:

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA

(3) ZKW

(4) ZKU

Answer: 3

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ

(3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

Answer: 4

24. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

Answer: 3

25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:

(1) 16, 40

(2) 20, 50

(3) 28, 70

(4) 32, 80

Answer: 4

Candidates may share their expected attempts in UGC NET Exam. Cutoff would be discussed once the answer key are made available officially.

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